John Wanted to See Mary Again

Question

Was Jesus being rude to Mary when He referred to her as "adult female" in John 2:4?

Jesus Mary woman

Reply

In John 2, Mary, Jesus, and some of the disciples are attending a hymeneals. In John 2:3, Mary tells Jesus that the host has run out of vino. Mary obviously wants Jesus to do something special to prepare the state of affairs; He had performed no miracles upwardly to this signal (John 2:eleven), and Mary undoubtedly thought it was time He showed who He was. Jesus' response, read in modern English language, strikes some people equally abrupt, even boorish or rude. He responds, "Woman, what does this have to do with me? My hour has not yet come" (ESV). It's Jesus' addressing His female parent equally "Woman" that seems about rude to united states of america.

I of the problems with translating from one language to another is that certain phrases have meanings non easily transferred. Phrases that don't hateful exactly what they say are often called "idioms," and they tin crusade defoliation in translation. For instance, exclamations such equally "heads up!" or "look out!" actually hateful the opposite of their literal words—if someone yells, "Heads up!" we usually duck our heads. A native English speaker understands such idioms instinctively, but in club to interpret them, we'd have to option words that aren't synonyms—heads up! might translate into words that mean "get down!"—or end up with a disruptive phrase.

What Jesus says to His mother in John ii:4 sounds almost rude in English. Even so, in the original linguistic communication, and in that culture, Mary would not have interpreted Jesus' words that way. The term adult female was used like we employ the term ma'am. By addressing Mary this way, Jesus does altitude Himself from His female parent somewhat—He was exerting His independence from her wishes—but in no way was it a rude fashion of speaking. Jesus lovingly uses the same discussion from the cross when He tells Mary that He is entrusting her to John's care (John 19:26).

The question Jesus asks His mother isn't rude, either. It may sound rude in the KJV: "What have I to practise with thee?" (John 2:iv), but it was a mutual idiom. In the Greek, Jesus' question is "Ti emoi kai soi?" The phrase was used to ask of the connection betwixt two people. The question could exist translated as "What business concern do we take with each other?" Or, in less formal terms, "What does this accept to do with me?" (ESV) or "Why do y'all involve me?" (NIV). Over again, Jesus is expressing the fact that He is contained of His mother; as eager equally Mary was to see Jesus do a miracle, she had no right to determine the time or the manner in which Jesus publicly revealed His glory. Jesus makes His signal gently and without being rude, however.

Jesus concludes His statement to Mary with, "My hr has non notwithstanding come." The reference to His "hour" or "time" (Cyberspace) means that Jesus was constantly working from a divine timetable. So, He wasn't going to reveal His power sooner than God the Father intended (run into John 5:thirty). One of the points Jesus fabricated in His temptation in the desert was that there is such a thing as doing the right matter for the wrong reasons (Matthew 4:ane–10). That is, it would be wrong to perform a miracle if the time and identify are not according to God'due south will.

Jesus did act, performing His get-go miracle. He turned the h2o into wine, simply He did so in a very subtle, subdued way. Merely the servants, Mary, and a few disciples fifty-fifty knew what He had done. The miracle was to introduce the disciples to His ability, not to show off or to become public with His power (see John two:11).

So, Jesus isn't existence rude or dismissive in John 2:4. He's politely pointing out that He follows God's timing, not Mary's; and that this is not His moment to exist publicly revealed. Some of the respectful tone is lost in translation, perhaps, but Jesus was not being rude.

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Questions about John

Was Jesus beingness rude to Mary when He referred to her equally "woman" in John 2:4?

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